How does the reader see meaning become interpreted differently based on how a writer defines terms in a way that is not similar to the authors original meaning? Can language fail to have meaning for the reader based on how it is communicated or used? Locke states in his essay titled An Essay Concerning Human Understanding,that "when any word does not excite in the hearer the same idea which it stands for in the mind of the speaker,” (817). Therefore, communication is either failing to be comprehended on the listeners end because of the speaker, or the speaker is not being clear with what they are trying to say to the listener. However, when we look back at what Derrida is saying about how, “meanings are not fixed, and that constructing meaning involves an ongoing process of social negotiation,” he says how language and discourse allows our thinking to be directed by the way we use words to communicate (256).
Derrida’s distinction between the terms “differ” and “defer” are very
interesting to observe. In Rivkin/Ryan essay on Structuralism and
Deconstruction, it states how Derrida meant that the term differance,
which he spells with a lower case “a”, is actually, “a process of deferment in
time and difference in space,” (258). The essay also explains how to understand the meaning of the term “differ”
which says how, “When you point to a presence (of a thing or of an idea), you
are referred to some other from which it differs,” (258). For example, in the essay we see how the two terms “differ” and “defer”
are defined based on how they coexist with each other, “…the concept of culture
differed and deferred. It is the differance of culture,” (258). The
essay goes back to referring to how the significance on how language from thought
to reality replaces one thing from another.This helps us see that Derrida needed Locke’s theories to construct his
argument on language.
The text makes it seem as if Derrida was obsessed with the concept that
language has no concept. That the terms “differ” and “defer” are significant to
the word difference, it states how “one thing refers to another in a relationship
of difference, allows the presence of ideas and objects to come into being in
the first place,” (259). Both terms correlate with each other and with difference as being represented as "the middle man" of the word. We see in Lockes essay that he believes this to be wrong as he states
how true knowledge of individuals when used, is more involved with words of knowledge
not ideas or passion. It says how, “all the artificial and figurative
application of words eloquence hath invented, are for nothing else but to
insinuate wrong ideas, move the passions, and thereby mislead the judgment”
(827).
-Daphne Britt
**Comment for Sara Kathryn Blog Post**:
Your explanation on how Derrida believed language to be more of a form, A ‘form’ is something external that shapes material into a particular identity or substance” (Derrida, 278), really helped me have a clearer understanding of his meaning for language. He also states how language is a, “system of relations and oppositions...standardized meanings... such as mind and body, form and content, nature and culture and faith and reason,"(255). His argument about language is very complex and confusing, but your explanation allowed me to see how he defines language.
**Comment for Sara Kathryn Blog Post**:
Your explanation on how Derrida believed language to be more of a form, A ‘form’ is something external that shapes material into a particular identity or substance” (Derrida, 278), really helped me have a clearer understanding of his meaning for language. He also states how language is a, “system of relations and oppositions...standardized meanings... such as mind and body, form and content, nature and culture and faith and reason,"(255). His argument about language is very complex and confusing, but your explanation allowed me to see how he defines language.
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ReplyDeleteI agree with a lot of the points you have listed. I felt as if both theorist were trying to really make sure the audience knew that words can be similar and appear to have the same meaning but there is something that separates them from each other. It is up to the reader to use our ideas that could possibly be the difference in the two words. I felt like the way Derrida unpacked the difference in between the words was a bit confusing because they all mean the same thing but it can be diction and word choice that changes how the words can be perceived. In a way, the way we communicate is also a big factor on how words can differentiate from one another. If we continue to associate red with madness and anger and then have the bride of a wedding wearing red; things can start to become a bit messy and confusing.
ReplyDeleteReading your post helped me easier understand what Derrida was saying. Now I understand that the audience played a part in understanding the words and how they can have similar meanings. I think I realize what he was saying about Differ and Deffer. They are similar but something between them separates them further than meets the eye. Understanding this gives me a better meaning to Derridas concepts.
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